Hi there,

I'm using a 2830n (firmawre 3.6.4.1_sb_232201) to load-balance across an ADSL & FTTC line. I want to bind traffic from VLAN1 to WAN2 (FTTC) and traffic from VLAN2 to WAN1 (ADSL).

I've noticed that the 2830n lacks the "Load Balance Policy" of other models (such as the 2920) so I've achieved this binding using a policy route as illustrated below.

It seems to be working just find but can anybody confirm if this is an acceptable method / against standard practice? Are there any pitfalls using this method?


(the red line is hiding my full IP for security reasons :o)

Any advice appreciated...
Al

You can also do it as a firewall rule

create a new data policy put in the "source range" of VLAN and then near the bottom it has a load balance option and you select the WAN you want from the drop down