I have a 2820 setup with 2 adsl lines. Basically I want to route certain IP's to cetain ports, so I set up a load balancing rule as follows:

Enabled
Protocol: any
WAN: WAN2
Src IP start: 192.168.1.100
Src IP end: 192.168.1.100

with everything else blank. However the PC on this IP is still using WAN1 for everything, have I done something wrong?

doesn't look as though you have. try changing the protocol to tcp/udp.

Thanks but it made no difference. I even tried setting one up that specified TCP with a destination port of 80, but the browser still uses WAN1.
It seems the only time it will actually use WAN2 is if WAN1 is down, even then it reverts back to using WAN1 once its connected again.

under wan>general setup

what is your load balance mode?

Hi
It's on Auto Weight. I wasn't really sure what to go for there as neither option is really what I'm looking for, but I figured if I'm specifying which route they should use it shouldn't matter anyway?

In your load balance policy rule did you specify destination port start and end?

Also I found (on a 2950) that I had to specify the Downlink and Uplink speeds on WAN, General Setup for auto load balancing to work. Come to think of it I specified them as slightly lower than the line (ie. it is a 2Mb line but I specified the uplink and downlink as 1900 - can't remember why though!).

Kevin